Maybe someone understands this?

Alright, this has been wandering my mind and I don't get it. I doubt it's a possibility but want to understand something. Normal people ovulate 12-14 days into their cycle, right? So they test on the day of their missed period to get their negative or positive test result. Well, what about people like me? My peak ovulation was around the 19th day of my cycle. So wouldn't I want to test *5* days after my period is due? Does that make sense? I just don't understand it how it'd work for people like me. I doubt I'm pregnant, but... doesn't that sound right?



And about testing for hCG. This one site says to the answer of how long to hold off going pee before you test... "If you are testing early, a four-hour wait is a good idea. The more hCG you have in your system, the less long you'll need to hold before trying to test." Is that true? Then wouldn't I have a problem there? I can only hold my bladder a short time since I have a weak one. So does that mean since I go pee so often the hCG wouldn't be as noticable? Maybe I'm not thinking straight. Just figured I'd ask.



Added 7/12: I am still getting cramps but no sign of my period. I think I might start my medroxy progresterone (provera) tonight so I can get my period relatively soon. Since I'm just prolonging it. Aldon says it's up to me. He says if I would feel better waiting a few days for testing before I start my pills then it's fine. We'll see.